Polity and Governance has a significant weightage in all stages of the exam. This channel aims to assist the student community in their preparation of polity and governance with materials and value added content customised to ace the difficulty of UPSC.
Q3. consider the following statements regarding the policy and governance significance of local data centres:
1. Local data centres promote data sovereignty by ensuring compliance with domestic data protection legislation.
2. The presence of domestic data centres reduces dependency on foreign digital infrastructure, thereby enhancing strategic autonomy.
3. Establishing local data centres requires approval from state legislatures due to its classification as a State Subject under the Seventh Schedule.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Q1. With reference to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2024, consider the following statements:
1. A marginal increase in urban female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) indicates improved gender parity in labour force engagement.
2. The unemployment rate under Current Weekly Status has remained higher in urban areas than in rural areas.
3. Worker Population Ratio (WPR) has significantly improved in both rural and urban areas, reflecting a broad-based employment recovery.
4. The overall all-India unemployment rate under Principal and Subsidiary Status (PS+SS) has sharply declined compared to the previous year.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the powers and functions of a Governor
1. A Governor can return a non-Money Bill for reconsideration of the State Legislature, but if the Bill is re-passed, the Governor must give assent.
2. The Constitution explicitly prescribes a time frame within which the Governor must act on a Bill under Article 200.
3. The Supreme Court can use its powers under Article 142 to enforce constitutional timelines when there is a constitutional vacuum or executive inaction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
MAINS MODEL Q&A:
In light of the formation of a committee on State Autonomy by a southern state government, critically examine the challenges to cooperative federalism in India. What are the implications of such initiatives for Centre-State relations and democratic governance? (250 words)
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MAINS MODEL Q&A:
India’s demographic dividend offers a unique opportunity to become a global talent hub. Examine how a structured legal migration policy can help leverage this dividend while contributing to national development. Suggest measures India should adopt to institutionalise overseas employment. ( 250 words)
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Q3. With reference to the implementation of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), consider the following statements:
1. The participation of state-run hospitals in AB-PMJAY requires a formal Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the State Government and the Central Government.
2. Private hospitals are legally obligated under AB-PMJAY to join the empanelment list once the scheme is notified in a state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the regulation and taxation of online gaming in India:
1. As per GST law, a flat 28% Goods and Services Tax (GST) is levied on the net winnings earned by users from real-money online games.
2. The power to regulate betting and gambling, including online gaming, lies with the states, but taxation on the same through GST falls under the purview of the Union Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
MAINS MODEL Q&A:
"Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana has evolved into a strategic tool for financial inclusion and socio-economic empowerment of vulnerable sections." Discuss with reference to its outreach and impact in the last decade. (250 words)
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Q2. Assertion (A): Article 246 of the Constitution, which demarcates legislative powers between the Union and the States.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India establishes a dual polity wherein both the Union and the States derive authority directly from the Constitution and are sovereign within their respective spheres.
Options:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
MAINS MODEL Q&A:
“One can heal before there is a need to heal.” In light of India’s rising burden of non-communicable diseases (NCDs), discuss the importance of a preventive healthcare approach. Suggest how behaviour, policy, and technology can work in convergence to address this public health challenge. (250 words)
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Q2. With reference to the legal framework governing demolitions, consider the following statements:
1. The Uttar Pradesh Urban Planning and Development Act, 1973, provides a legal basis for ordering demolitions of unauthorized structures but requires due process to be followed.
2. The Supreme Court ruling of April 2025 declared all demolitions conducted by state authorities as unconstitutional.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
MAINS MODEL Q&A:
“The Supreme Court's recent verdict has redefined the contours of gubernatorial discretion in India.” Critically examine the constitutional provisions regarding the Governor’s assent to Bills and discuss the implications of the judgment on Centre-State relations. (250 words)
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Q3. With reference to the legal treatment of defamation and hate speech in India, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, promoting enmity between groups is punishable under Section 356.
2. Defamation primarily protects the reputation of individuals and can be both a civil and criminal offence.
3. Hate speech targets group identities and is primarily governed by provisions related to public order and communal harmony.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding arbitration in India and the role of the Society for Affordable Redressal of Disputes (Sarod):
1. The Sarod arbitration framework was established by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) to provide a cost-effective and time-efficient dispute resolution mechanism.
2. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitral tribunal must always consist of an odd number of arbitrators to ensure a majority decision.
3. Arbitral awards issued by tribunals composed of retired judges are legally immune from being challenged in Indian courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Q3. Assertion (A): The fundamental right to free speech, including through poetry, theatre, stand-up comedy, and satire, must be protected and cherished in a free society.
Reason (R): Reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution must not be harmful, oppressive, or overshadow the fundamental right to free speech.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q2. With reference to the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, consider the following statements:
1. The Act allows senior citizens to reclaim property gifted or transferred to children if the condition of providing basic care is not fulfilled.
2. Section 23(2) provides that the right to maintenance continues even after the property is transferred, if the transferee had prior knowledge of the obligation.
3. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 overrides the Senior Citizens Act in all property-related disputes involving women.
4. Maintenance Tribunals under the MWPSC Act are empowered to order eviction of children from the property of senior citizens in cases of neglect or abuse.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Q3. With reference to the classification of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India, consider the following statements:
1. The MSME Development Act, 2006 provides the statutory basis for classifying enterprises based on investment and turnover.
2. The revised classification aims to address the "missing middle" problem by encouraging vertical growth among firms.
3. All MSMEs are mandatorily entitled to a 25% share in government procurement contracts under the Public Procurement Policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q1. Consider the following statements,
1. A caveat is a legal notice filed in a court to prevent a decision from being passed without hearing the party filing it.
2. The constitutional validity of a law passed by Parliament can only be challenged in the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Focus ; A Proclamation of Democracy in Legislative Process
Ref ; A proclamation of democracy in legislative process ; The Hindu 16 Apr 2025
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MAINS MODEL Q&A:
Critically examine the constitutional and socio-political implications of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 in the context of minority rights and democratic governance in India. (250 words)
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Q2. With reference to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and its functions, consider the following statements:
1. The MPC determines the policy repo rate to achieve the inflation target set under the Inflation Targeting Framework of the RBI Act, 1934.
2. Decisions of the MPC are binding on the RBI, and the Governor of RBI has no overriding veto power in the decision-making process.
3. One of the major tools used by the MPC to manage liquidity and inflation is the adjustment of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Focus ; Functional Analysis of the Enforcement Directorate
Ref ; ED summons Robert Vadra: All about the DLF land deal case in which he will be questioned; The Indian Express Dt 15 Apr 2025.
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Q3. With reference to the anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker has the final authority to decide disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, and the courts have no role in the matter.
2. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 removed the provision that allowed disqualification exemption on grounds of split by one-third members of a legislature party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q1. In the context of Centre-State fiscal and political relations in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Finance Commission, constituted under Article 280, plays a critical role in maintaining fiscal federalism by recommending the sharing of central taxes with the States.
2. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 ensures cooperative federalism by mandating both Centre and State contributions to disaster response funds.
3. The Inter-State Council under Article 263, though advisory in nature, can complement the Finance Commission by addressing political and administrative aspects of Centre-State coordination.
Which of the above statements best reflect the interplay of fiscal and political mechanisms in India's federal structure?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Domestic workers in India are not comprehensively covered under significant labour laws and regulations.
2. Gig economy platforms are legally obligated to provide health insurance and other benefits to all their workers.
3. The lack of proper regulations governing domestic work reinforces systemic inequalities and leads to exploitative working conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Q1. Identify the correct match between key labour and social security provisions and their respective laws.
Provision - Act
A. Pension for organised sector employees - 1. EPF Act, 1952
B. EPF contributions regulations - 2. Social Security Code, 2020
C. Maternity & sickness benefits - 3. EPS, 1995
D. Wage & pension for unorganised workers - 4. ESI Act,1948
Options:
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
MAINS MODEL Q&A:
Despite the enactment of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, the transgender community in India continues to face systemic discrimination and exclusion. Examine the gaps in implementation and suggest measures for ensuring true inclusion and empowerment. (250 words)
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Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Freedom of Speech and Expression in India:
1. Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution is an absolute right.
2. Historically, freedom of expression in India has been shaped more by electoral democracy and political necessity than by constitutional idealism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Focus ; Silent Epidemic of NCDs - Need of Preventive Medicine
Ref :Prescribe preventive medicine for a healthy India ; The Hindu 07 Apr 2025
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Q2. With reference to religious freedom, consider the following statements:
1. The right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion is guaranteed under Article 25 of the Indian Constitution.
2. It is subject to public order, morality, and health.
3. On these subject police have the authority to impose punitive measures without judicial oversight under the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3