Consider the following statements with respect to Parliamentary Privileges:
1. The origin of Parliamentary privileges in India can be traced to Charter act 1833.
2. 42nd Constitutional amendment allowed the media to publish the true reports of the parliamentary proceedings except the same related to the house’s secret sitting.
3. Parliamentarians can use these privileges against the judges too.
Choose the correct code:
Which of the following statement is correct regarding Representation of People act 1951:
1. A person contesting from three seats at the same time was abolished in 1996.
2. Returning Officer could not reject nomination papers on the ground that candidate information was false.
3. Election commission can only file FIR against a person , failing to lodge account of election expenses.
Choose the correct code:
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Answer: 1 and 2
Data on migration according to 2011 Census.
⇒ In 2011, India had 45.6 crore migrants, which is 38% of the population.
⇒ Between 2001 and 2011, while the population increased by 18%, the number of migrants went up by 45%.
⇒ Almost all of the migration (99%) was within the country, and only 1% involved international immigrants.
⇒ Out of the internal migrants, 21 crore were moving from one rural area to another, making up 54% of the classified internal migration.
⇒ Nearly 88% of all internal migration happened within the same state.
⇒ Uttar Pradesh and Bihar were the main sources of people moving to other states, while Maharashtra and Delhi received the most migrants.
⇒ The majority (70%) of within-state migration occurred due to reasons related to marriage and family.
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Answer: All of these
Special Marriage Act 1954:
⇒ When a person solemnises marriage under Special Marriage Act , then the marriage is not governed by personal laws but by the Special Marriage Act.
⇒ The applicability of the Act extends to the people of all faiths, including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists, across India. It applies to Indians and Foreigners too.
⇒ The parties to the marriage are required to give a notice, in writing, to a “Marriage Officer” of the district in which at least one of the parties has resided for at least 30 days immediately preceding the notice.
⇒ The parties and three witnesses are required to sign a declaration form before the Marriage Officer.
⇒ Once the declaration is accepted, the parties will be given a “Certificate of marriage” which is essentially proof of the marriage.
Sub-categorisation within caste:
Context: The Union government has formed a five-member committee of Secretaries, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary to assess and find a fair way to distribute benefits, programs, and initiatives to the most disadvantaged communities among the 1,200 Scheduled Castes in the country.
What is sub-categorisation of caste?
⇒ It involves further classifying broader caste groups into sub-groups based on various criteria.
Various judgements regarding sub-categorisation of SCs:
⇒ In the 1976 case of State of Kerala v N M Thomas, the Supreme Court asserted that “Scheduled Castes are not castes; they are a class.
⇒ In the 2005 E V Chinnaiah case, the court ruled that special protection for Scheduled Castes is not contingent on factors like education or economics. Instead, it is based on the premise that all Scheduled Castes, regardless of intersecting inequality, should collectively enjoy reservation benefits due to their historical experience of untouchability.
In jarnail singh also, court advised to include sub categorisation within SC ST
Why sub-categorisation of SCs is needed?
⇒ To address inequalities among SCs communities.
⇒ To address disproportionate share in opportunities. For e.g.: Arundhatiyar caste (Tamil Nadu), constituting 16% of the SC population, had only 0-5% of the jobs, leading to a 3% quota within the SC quota.
⇒ To address the internal hierarchies within SCs due to distinct cultural, social, and economic characteristics.
⇒ To secure social mobility of SCs.
What are the issues associated with sub-categorisation of SCs?
⇒ Violate the Right to Equality [(E.V. Chinnaiah v State of Andhra Pradesh (2004)]
⇒ Determining the criteria for sub-categorization can be difficult.
⇒ Obtaining accurate and up-to-date data on the socio-economic status of different Scheduled Caste communities poses a challenge.
⇒ May lead to internal divisions and disputes among SC communities.
⇒ Might lead to the fragmentation of the SC community, could weaken their collective strength in advocating for their rights.
Suggestion:
⇒ NCSC and NCST Commissions have noted that allotting separate reservations within the categories would not really address the root cause of the problem. They recommended that existing schemes and government benefits first reach these sections before any sub-categorisation.
⇒ The inclusion of Clause (3) in Article 341 empowers state legislatures to enact the reclassification of the Scheduled Caste category, subject to Presidential confirmation.(Usha Mehra Committee).
⇒ Develop transparent and inclusive criteria for sub-categorization.
Consider the following statements with respect to National Green Hydrogen Mission:
1. Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme has been launched under this mission to target domestic manufacturing of electrolysers.
2.Strategic hydrogen Innovation partnership has been launched to facilitate PPP model research and development.
Choose the correct code:
Global report on neglected tropical diseases is being released by:
A. WHO
B. WHO and WORLD BANK
C. WHO and FAO
D. WHO, FAO and International classification of diseases
Child marriage: A scar on India
Context: The recent study by Lancet titled ‘Prevalence of girl and boy child marriage across States and Union Territories in India, 1993-2021: a repeated cross-sectional study’ highlights that one in five girls are still married below the legal age in India.
Key findings:
⇒ Four states, Bihar (16.7%), West Bengal (15.2%), Uttar Pradesh (12.5%), Maharashtra (8.2%) accounts for more than half of the total child marriages in India. The largest absolute increase was observed in West Bengal (Lancet).
⇒ Women aged between 20-24 years who were married before the age of 18 years in West Bengal remains one of the highest in the country at 41.6%. The all-India figure was around 23.3% (NFHS-5).
Reasons for the prevalence of child marriage in India:
⇒ Poverty: often drives families to marry off their daughters at a young age due to financial constraints.
⇒ Migration: People don’t want to leave unmarried daughters at home.
⇒ Educational backwardness
⇒ Dowry: Marrying off daughters at a younger age perceived as a way to reduce dowry expenses.
⇒ Social norms & customs: dictate that girls should marry early, following traditions upheld by the community.
Impact of child marriage:
⇒ Poor educational status of girls results in illiteracy and poor skill base, limits their employment opportunities.
⇒ Mental health due to the pressure of early marital responsibilities.
⇒ High maternal & child mortality due to early pregnancy and poor health of both mother & new born
⇒ Increased dependence on male members of the family due to their restricted access to resources.
⇒ Sexual abuse & gender-based violence as child brides often lack the agency to protect themselves or seek help.
⇒ Vicious cycle of inequality and poverty
Steps taken by Government:
⇒ The Prohibition of Child Marriage Amendment bill 2021, increased the age of girls from 18 years to 21 years for marriage (Jaya Jaitly Committee).
⇒ Beti Bachao Beti Padhao: To empower girls through education, health and protection, and discourage child marriage.
⇒ Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana: Government-backed savings scheme that offers a guaranteed interest rate of 7.6%.
⇒ Dhanlaxmi scheme: To eliminate child marriage by offering parents insurance coverage of medical expenses and encouraging the education of the girl child.
Way Forward:
⇒ District action plans to curb the menace like done by West Bengal (targeted approach).
⇒ Social awareness campaign by including panchayats, schools, colleges, and local communities (bottom-up approach).
⇒ Implementation & monitoring of laws with the active involvement of local bodies.
⇒ Empowerment of girls through educational and economic opportunities (capacity building approach).
⇒ Task force for the prohibition of child marriages in village areas by involving community workers.
Best Practice:
In 2019, Odisha introduced a comprehensive state strategy aiming to eradicate child marriage by 2030. Each district is actively managing databases of adolescents and documenting all marriages at the village level.
Q. With reference to Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), consider the following
statements:
1. It is not legally binding on signatory countries.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy of Constitution of India reflect the principles and provisions of the UDHR.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Context: Higher education in India is facing scrutiny, due to higher education out of touch with the skill requirements in the job market.
What are the issues with Higher Education Institutions (HEIs)?
⇒ Enrolment: GER of India in higher education is only 26% which is quite low as compared to the developed countries.
⇒ Quality: Only 3 Indian institutions feature in the top 200 of world rankings (QS world university rankings).
⇒ Faculty shortages and the inability of the state educational system: To attract and retain well- qualified teachers have been posing challenges to quality education for many years.
⇒ Accreditation: As per the data provided by the NAAC in 2020, not even 25% of the total higher education institutions in the country were accredited.
What are the reasons for mismatch?
⇒ India’s research and development (R&D) expenditure as a proportion of GDP is only 0.7% and in Korea is 4%.
⇒ Educational institutions have curricula that are not aligned with the current needs of industries.
⇒ Academic programs focused more on theoretical knowledge than practical skills.
⇒ Lack of collaboration between educational institutions and industries.
⇒ Issue with UGC due to lack of transparency and over-centralisation.
⇒ Online education system Lack practical components and hands-on experience.
What can be done?
⇒ Need to increase the expenditure of R&D to facilitate industry-relevant research.
⇒ Need regular updation of University curricula
⇒ Improve the quality of online education
⇒ Regularly assess and review program outcomes in collaboration with industry partners.
Which of the following is the part of International Bill of Rights:-
1. Universal declaration on human rights.
2. International convenant on civil and political rights.
3. International convenant on economic, social and cultural rights.
With reference to the Competition Commission of India (CCI) , consider the following statements:
1. It is a quasi-judicial body established under Competition Act, 2002.
2. The Union Minister of Corporate Affairs serves as the ex-officio chairman of the CCI.
3. It aims to foster a strong competitive environment through proactive engagement with consumers, industry, government, and international jurisdictions.
How many of the above statements is/are correct
With reference to the National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation (NSFDC), consider the following statements:
1. It is a fully government-owned company under the Companies Act, 2013, in India.
2. It is now functioning exclusively for the development of the Scheduled Castes of rural areas.
3. NSFDC is managed by a governing body chaired by an officer holding the rank of Secretary in the Government of India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
WING:- A capacity development program for aspiring women entrepreneurs is the part of:-
A. Department of Promotion of Industrial and Internet Trade.
B. Department of science and technology.
C. Ministry of women and child development.
D. National commission for women
Why UN decade of Healthy ageing progress report was in news recently :-
A. WHO and UN relased such report first in 2021 and now in 2023.
B. UN and Niti Aayog has released this report for the first time.
C. UN and WHO has released this report for first time.
D. It is released by UN and as a global strategy after Madrid plan of action on ageing for the first time
Which of the following is correct regarding President rule:
1. President rule can be imposed on the ground that the government in the particular state is corrupt.
2. Once the president rule is imposed, it is not mandatory to dissolve the State legislature.
3. With regard to the President rule,"Suspended animation" of the Assembly should only be exercised, if there is a possibility of government formation in the near future.
Choose the correct code:
Which of the following process is used in designating Senior Advocates:
a. It is based on an interview by the committee composed of Judges of SC and HC and bar council.
b. It is done on the basis of the list forwarded by the Bar council.
c. It is done on the basis of appointment by the SC and HC judges.
d. It is based on an interview by the committee composed of SC Judge and Attorney General of India and nominated member of Bar.
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Answer: 3 only
⇒ The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. The Commission works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child Development.
⇒ The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) emphasizes the principle of universality and inviolability of child rights and recognizes the tone of urgency in all the child related policies of the country.
⇒ For the Commission, protection of all children in the 0 to 18 years age group is of equal importance.
⇒ The Commission is further mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of: Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
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Answer: B (1AND 3)
Reasons behind the demand:
⇒ Estimated that more than 90% of Ladakh’s population is tribal.
⇒ The primary STs in Ladakh are Balti Beda, Bot or Boto, Brokpa or Drokpa, Changpa, Garra, Mon and Purigpa.
Benefits of inclusion:
⇒ Inclusion in the sixth schedule will help in democratic devolution of powers in the region and will also enhance the transfer of funds for speedy development of the region.
Provision of 6th Schedule:
⇒ Tribal areas are to be administered as Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions and the Governor of the State is empowered to determine the area or areas as administrative units of the Autonomous Districts and Autonomous Regions.
⇒ The Governor has the power to create a new Autonomous District/Region or alter the territorial jurisdiction or the name of any Autonomous District or Autonomous Regions.
⇒ The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from them. The jurisdiction of high court over these suits and cases is specified by the governor.
Competition Commission of India (CCI):
Context: The dawn of Amrit Kaal (next 25 years) signifies a period of significant technological advancements and global economic shifts, now, it is crucial to examine the role of Competition Commission of India (CCI) in navigating the complexities of changes .
Importance of CCI:
1. Enforcement measures:
⇒ For promoting fair competition and curbing anti-competitive practices: By issuing suitable punitive and remedial solutions.
⇒ It inquiries into and takes action against any form of anti-competitive agreements between enterprises. These include collusive practices (such as cartelisation, price-fixing, bid-rigging etc.) and vertical restraints that harm the competitive landscape.
⇒ It also examines the conduct of dominant companies to ensure they do not abuse their position. Practices like predatory pricing, denial of market access, and exclusive agreements are scrutinised to maintain healthy competition.
2. Advocacy measures:
⇒ To foster an ecosystem where innovation thrives and consumer interests are protected through promoting a culture of competition in the markets and to nudge market participants towards competition compliance.
⇒ Plays a pivotal role in educating stakeholders about the benefits of a competitive environment.
⇒ It also provides opinions and recommendations on policy matters affecting competition, as and when sought.
3. Safeguard consumer interest:
⇒ By ensuring that consumers benefit from fair prices, quality products, and a variety of choices in the market.
Challenges faced by CCI in the digital age:
⇒ Market Dominance: In the digital world, a few big tech companies have a lot of power and influence. This can create problems because these companies might become too powerful, limiting competition in the market.
⇒ Lack of innovation: When only a few big players control everything, it can make it hard for new and smaller companies to come up with new ideas. This can slow down the development of new technologies and services.
⇒ Unfair pricing: Big tech companies might set prices so low that smaller companies can't compete. If this continues, it could lead to only one or a few companies dominating the market.
⇒ Exclusive deals: Some digital platforms make exclusive deals that limit access to certain products or services. This reduces choices for consumers and makes it difficult for new companies to enter the market.
CCI’s approach to tackle these challenges:
⇒ Since digital markets operate globally, CCI needs to work with other countries to create rules that everyone follows, to address problems that cross borders.
⇒ CCI needs to stay updated on the latest developments and be ready to change rules to keep up with the fast pace of digital markets.
⇒ CCI has to find a balance between letting innovation happen and making sure there are enough rules to keep the market fair. They need to be careful not to make too many rules that stop new ideas from coming up.
Conclusion:
By staying ahead of potential problems, investing in research, building expertise, and using technology wisely, CCI can help create a future where there's competition, new ideas are encouraged, and consumers are protected. On India's 75th Independence Day, CCI reaffirms its commitment to guiding India's economy towards competitiveness, inclusivity, and resilience.
Education Quality Upgradation and Inclusion Program (EQUIP) has been recently launched for higher education. Which of the following statements is correct in this regard:
1. It aims to expand the reach of the higher education institutions to increase Gross enrolment ratio to 52% by 2030.
2. The focus is to support 20 prominent higher education institutions in India to get global top 200 rankings.
3. To fund higher education, focus is on Corporate social responsibility.
Supreme Court Legal Services Committee
Context: Justice BR Gavai has been nominated as the Chairman of the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC).
What is the SCLSC?
⇒ It was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide “free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society”, in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction.
Composition of SCLSC:
⇒ It is composed of Chairperson and nine members nominated by the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
⇒ The Centre prescribes the qualifications for membership.
⇒ The CJI can also appoint the Secretary to the Committee.
⇒ The Committee, can appoint officers and other employees as prescribed by the Centre, in consultation with the CJI.
Constitutional provision for legal services:
⇒ Articles 14, 22(1) and 39A.
What is the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987?
⇒ The Act established a statutory foundation for legal aid programs, to offer free and competent legal services to various eligible groups, such as women, children, SC/ST and EWS categories, industrial workers, disabled persons, etc.
⇒ National Legal Services Authorities (NALSA ), in 1995 was constituted under the Act to monitor and evaluate the implementation of legal aid programs and to formulate policies for ensuring the availability of legal services. CJI is the patron-in-chief of NALSA.
⇒ In every state, State Legal Services Authorities (SLSA) were established to implement NALSA’s policies and directions, give free legal services to people, and conduct Lok Adalats. HC Chief Justice is the patron-in-chief of the SLSA.
⇒ District Legal Services Authorities (DLSA) and Taluk Legal Services Committees were established in districts and most taluks. DLSA is chaired by the District Judge of the respective district and Taluka or Sub-Divisional Legal Services Committees are headed by a senior civil judge.
Context: The article highlights the importance of structured negotiation for disability rights
What is structured negotiation?
⇒ It is a collaborative and solution-driven dispute resolution technique used as an alternative to litigation.
⇒ It involves inviting the defaulting service provider to the negotiation table and impressing upon them the benefits of complying with social welfare legislations.
India and Disability:
⇒ The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 provides that any non-compliance with its provisions may be reported to the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities (‘CCPD’).
⇒ CCPD puts the defaulting service provider on notice, and may then either direct them to make their services accessible or impose penalties on them for non-compliance.
Significance of structured negotiation:
⇒ Helps to drive institutional reform by facilitating strategies.
⇒ Avoid the high costs and negative publicity and promote barrier-free participation.
⇒ To ensure that they are able to make their offerings accessible without having to go through the complications of litigation.
⇒ It can enable Persons with Disabilities to take their concerns directly to the service providers and monitor the fixes as they get implemented.
Way Forward:
⇒ Businesses must prioritized the needs of disabled users, and exhibiting openness to enter into a structured negotiation.
⇒ Any attempt to make digital services accessible for persons with disabilities in real time requires constant vigilance and user inputs which can validate the efficacy of solutions.
⇒ The success of any alternative dispute resolution model is directly proportional to the level of priority that such service providers are willing to afford to the struggles of persons with disabilities.
Success of structured negotiation:
⇒ It has been most effective in settling disability rights cases in United States.
⇒ It has convinced Walmart, CVS and Caremark to create accessible prescription bottles for blind or low vision customers.
With reference to the Central Consumer Protection Authority, consider the following statements:
1. It is a regulatory body under Ministry of Consumer Affairs.
2. It has the power to recall goods or withdrawal of services that are dangerous, hazardous or unsafe.
3. It intervenes in any proceedings involving the violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices before the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Context: ECI has brought in new rules for allocation of symbols to Registered Unrecognized Political Parties (RUPPs).
What is RUPPs?
⇒ These parties encompass newly registered entities, those that have not gained sufficient votes to attain state/national party status, and those that have never participated in elections since their registration.
⇒ Such parties do not enjoy all the benefits extended to the recognised parties.
Provision for registration of political parties:
⇒ Article 324: Grants the ECI the authority to register political parties.
⇒ The registration of all political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Allocation of symbols to political parties:
⇒ ECI is responsible for the allotment of symbols through Election Symbol (Reservation and Allotment) order 1968.
⇒ Symbols can be either reserved (exclusive to a recognised national or state political party), or free for RUPPs.
⇒ As per the order, RUPPs may also propose three new symbols of their choice should have no resemblance to the existing reserved symbols or free symbols, or any religious or communal connotation, or depict any bird or animal.
Rules for allocation of symbols to unrecognised political parties:
Earlier rules:
⇒ To ensure transparency, in 2014 EC had earlier mandated that RUPPs wishing to avail the benefits of a common symbol must submit proof of up-to-date contribution reports, audited annual accounts, updated election expenditure statements, and the latest organization details.
New Rules:
1. The party has to submit Contribution Reports and Audited Annual Accounts for the last three financial years (proof of service to be attached).
2. Also submit Election Expenditure Statements for the last two contested elections.
3. Signatures of authorized office bearers of parties to bring in transparency in the organisation.
⇒ The new rules now make it mandatory for RUPPs to include these details in the application form for symbols. Previously, RUPPs submitted these details separately.
⇒ An annexure has been added to the application, declaring that the party has submitted the requisite reports.
Upskilling for rural youth
Context: The discussions have been held on empowering rural youth through skill development initiatives to make them employment ready.
Major source of rural income:
⇒ Farming Activities: Like cultivating crops, horticulture, and floriculture etc.
⇒ Labor: Many individuals in rural areas engage in various types of labor, including agricultural labour and construction work,
⇒ Non-farming Activities: Such as small-scale trading, services (such as transportation or repairing services) etc.
⇒ Cottage Industries: Like handloom weaving, pottery, handicrafts, and small-scale manufacturing.
Issues faced by rural people:
⇒ Fragmentation of land hinders efficient farming practices, reduce productivity.
⇒ Agrarian crisis due to unpredictable weather patterns, water scarcity, soil degradation, rising input costs, and fluctuating market prices.
⇒ Limited opportunities due to limited access to education and skill training programme.
⇒ Inadequate wages in agricultural and non-agricultural sectors.
Consequences of agrarian crisis:
⇒ Around 34 million farmers leaving their farms and transitioning to other sectors such as construction during 2004-05 and 2011-12 (NSSO).
⇒ Migration to nearby areas in search of meaningful employment and thereby increasing economic and environmental burden on urban areas.
⇒ Feminization of rural areas, as men migrate to urban and semi urban areas for better economic opportunities.
Government initiative:
⇒ Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDY-GKY) : To provide high quality skill training opportunities.
⇒ Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS) Scheme: To provide vocational skills to non-literate, neo-literates as well as school drop outs.
⇒ Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): To enable Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.
Way forward
⇒ Labour-intensive “township and village enterprises" (TVEs) needs to set up in under the purview of local governments to revitalize rural economies (Practiced by China)
⇒ Vocational education needs to be integrated with Industrial Training Institutes to upskill rural population.
⇒ Skill mapping of rural areas can help tailor training programs to meet local needs effectively.
⇒ Government support: such as Delhi government’s ‘Skill On Wheel’ Initiative.
Best Practices:
⇒ Mexico’s tele schools: they focus on providing subject knowledge along with moral values in remote areas where secondary schools are scarce.
Q. With reference to the Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) ID, consider the following statement:
1.It is a 12-digit digital ID card designed for tracking the academic progress of all students from pre-primary education to higher education.
2. It is a component of the 'One Nation, One Student ID' initiative outlined in the National Education Policy of 2020.
3. The registration for creating an APAAR ID is mandatory.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Context: Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS) was initially made mandatory from February 2023. However, through several extensions, the Centre allowed to persist until December 2023. Now government made ABPS mandatory from January 2024.
What is NREGA Aadhaar-based payment system (ABPS)?
⇒ It is a method of disbursing payments to MGNREGA workers using their Aadhaar number as their financial address. In this worker’s Aadhaar numbers are linked with their job cards as well as their bank accounts, this account must be connected to the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) mapper.
⇒ Under Mahatma Gandhi NREGS, APBS is in use since 2017.
Exemption for the disbursing payment:
⇒ Exemptions on a "case-by-case basis", if any gram panchayat experiences "technical issues" or Aadhaar-related problems until the resolution of the underlying issue.
Pros:
⇒ Ensure that payments are quick, reduce rejection and plug all leaks.
⇒ Enhance transparency by creating a digital trail of transactions, making it easier to track and monitor payments.
⇒ Ensuring rightful payments, minimizing fraud and corruption, and eliminating intermediaries.
⇒ Encourages financial inclusion by promoting the use of bank accounts.
Cons:
⇒ In 2023, 12.7% of these active workers (those who have worked at least one day in the last three financial years) are still not eligible, due to issues such as biometric authentication failures or errors in Aadhaar data (LibTech India).
⇒ 7.6 crore workers have been deleted over the past 21 months due to discrepancies between the Aadhaar and the job card, among other reasons, with many of these done erroneously.
⇒ Compelling the use of ABPS with more than one-third of the total MNREGA registered workers rendered ineligible will inevitably lead to the denial of the right to work (Article 41).
⇒ May also cause problem of faulty Aadhar seeding and mapping the Aadhaar to the wrong bank account for many.
Way forward
⇒ Considering alternative authentication methods, especially in areas where biometric authentication is challenging, can help prevent exclusion errors.
⇒ Regular monitoring and evaluation to identify and address any issues promptly.
⇒ Government must revisit this decision, and work out a way to correct the faulty seeding and mapping problems before imposing ABPS.
Draft Broadcasting Services (Regulation) Bill, 2023
Context: Broadcasting Services (Regulation) Bill, 2023 which seeks to replace the three-decade-old Cable Television Networks Regulation Act of 1995 (CTN Act), seeks to modernize regulations.
Key provision of the bill:
⇒ No person or broadcasting company can provide services or run a network without formal registration or intimation to the government, except few authorised bodies like Prasar Bharati or Parliament channels.
⇒ Creation of content evaluation committees (CEC) comprising members from various social groups, to encourage self-regulation on digital platforms.
⇒ Establishment of programme and advertisement codes for content quality and accessibility.
⇒ Three-tier regulatory mechanism: Self-regulation by operators, self-regulatory organizations, and a Broadcast Advisory Council.
⇒ Modern broadcasting terminologies including Internet Protocol Television (IPTV) and OTT platforms as defined in the Bill.
⇒ The Centre and authorised officers will have the right to inspect broadcasting networks and services.
Significance of the bill:
⇒ Promote ‘ease of doing business’ through Dispute Resolution mechanism.
⇒ Promotes technological advancement and service evolution.
⇒ Provide autonomy to the broadcasting industry in matters of obtaining certification through CEC.
⇒ Enhancing the accessibility of broadcasting services for persons with disabilities by promoting the use of subtitles, audio descriptors and sign language.
Concerns associated with this bill:
⇒ Bill allows government officers to prohibit broadcasts they deem inappropriate, may be used to impose undue restrictions and censorship.
⇒ The government will prescribe the criteria for the constitution of CEC, which raises questions of its independence.
⇒ The bill does not address the unholy nexus involving cable operators, politicians, entrepreneurs, and broadcasters.
⇒ The proposed codes to those applicable to cable TV raises concerns about the impact on free speech, journalistic expression, and artistic creativity.
⇒ Bill includes numerous instances of "as may be prescribed" and "as notified by the [Union] Government, is a point of contention.
Way forward:
⇒ Investment in media literacy programs like Singapore and Australia.
⇒ The government must nominate members from the broadcast industry and from civil society to keep the CEC independent and impartial.
2. On whether Art 370 is temporary or permanent: The court said that there were two aspects that showed the temporary nature of Article 370.
⇒ First, it was intended as an interim arrangement until the Constituent Assembly of the State was formed and in the interim, there was needed a legal bridge between J&K and India. Once the J & K Constitution was enacted and it was adopted to be a part of India, this arrangement would not have been necessary.
⇒ Second, the provision was adopted because of the special circumstances in the state, which was experiencing war conditions.
3. On the legality of the abrogation of Article 370: SC upheld the legality of Presidential Order of 272 & 273.
⇒ SC said that the circuitous route of first changing the meaning of the Constituent Assembly of J&K was not needed.
⇒ Essentially, after the Constituent Assembly of the state ceased to exist, the President could have always unilaterally abrogated Article 370.
4. On the action that was taken under President’s rule: SC cited the 1994 ruling in S R Bommai v Union of India that defined the contours of proclamation of President’s rule.
⇒ The court said that the standard to decide the validity of the President’s action was to see whether it was not “mala fide or palpably irrational”, or that the “advisability and necessity of the action was not borne in mind by the President”.
⇒ The court rejected the argument that irrevocable action being taken cannot be accepted as proof of mala fides.